Author
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Topic: Auto dealership employee joyriding in customer vehicle: EPPA?
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Dan Mangan Member
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posted 06-27-2012 10:23 AM
An autobody shop tech at a new-car dealership decides to use a customer's car over the weekend. Customer saw his own car being driven, but couldn't tail it. The customer raised hell with the dealershop, understandably.Dealership owner calls me and wants to test three technicians who work the body shop. I explain the basics of EPPA and recommend that they go over it with their corporate counsel. There's no material loss that I can see, so I doubt EPPA applies. Am I overlooking anything? Is there any way to legally test the suspects? Thanks, Dan IP: Logged |
Barry C Member
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posted 06-27-2012 02:49 PM
What do you mean by doubting that EPPA applies?IP: Logged |
Dan Mangan Member
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posted 06-27-2012 05:11 PM
Barry, maybe a material/monetary loss could take a tortured path...The customer in this case leases his cars at the dealership. For this exercise,let's say the customer has leased a new car every two years for 14 years. After seeing how his car was misused, he returns the car and demands the lease be nullified, depriving the dealership of the remaining lease payments -- and perhaps the customary settling-up fees. He also swears he'll never do business with them again. Is that not a loss? IP: Logged |
clambrecht Member
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posted 06-27-2012 05:29 PM
I vote no, there is no specific financial loss to the dealership. IP: Logged |
Barry C Member
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posted 06-27-2012 10:28 PM
I don't think your scenario would be one to bet on, but it probably is an indirect loss to the company because of their fiduciary responsibility to the customer. In Maine, theft by unauthorized use is a crime. I'd imagine it is elsewhere. The customer is entitled to payment for the use of his car, and since it was in the employer's custody, the employer is probably liable. It's late. I'm tired, and this is ugly, but - with the advise of counsel, since I'm not a lawyer - there's hope for this one. Read the relevant Code of Federal Regulations. I think they use an example similar to this one. IP: Logged |
Ted Todd Member
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posted 06-28-2012 09:40 PM
Are you guys kidding me? No material loss? How about 55 cents per mile on the vehicle in question not to mention the probable abuse that occurred to the vehicle. I think you all need to read EPPA again and get over this.The next question is; do you have enough info to test 1, 2, or all three of the technicians? Ted IP: Logged |
Dan Mangan Member
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posted 06-28-2012 09:57 PM
Ted, you're right. It seems that our EPPA conversations all too often conjure up images of clear-cut "missing money" situations, when financial loss can take many forms...Thanks, Dan IP: Logged |
skipwebb Member
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posted 06-29-2012 12:04 PM
I don't see anything in the post to indicate the vehicle was a leased vehicle so I can't see the argument for the customer having a direct loss other than wear and tear, gas and possible abuse of the vehicle.As for the dealer, he had no direct or indirect loss that I can see. I don't think ill will, unsatisfied customer relations or possible bad press for the business would stand the Dept of Labor test as indirect loss. I also didn't see where an investigation led to the identity of a likely suspect as opposed to screening all of them. IP: Logged |
Dan Mangan Member
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posted 06-29-2012 02:44 PM
The car is actually being leased. I can't speak to the depth of the internal investigation, but the body shop is an off-site facility away from the dealership, with just a few technicians having access to keys and vehicles. The customer who saw his car being driven got a glimpse of the driver. IP: Logged |
Barry C Member
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posted 06-29-2012 03:05 PM
Read the CFR. The answers to most of these questions are there. I agree with Ted that there is probably a loss: quote: (iv) Indirect loss or injury also includes theft or injury to property of another for which the employer exercises fiduciary, managerial or security responsibility, or where the firm has custody of the property (but not property of other firms to which the employees have access by virtue of the business relationship). For example, if a maintenance employee of the manager of an apartment building steals jewelry from a tenant’s apartment, the theft results in an indirect economic loss or injury to the employer because of the manager’s management responsibility with respect to the tenant’s apartment. A messenger on a delivery of confidential business reports for a client firm who steals the reports causes an indirect economic loss or in-jury to the messenger service because the messenger service is custodian of the client firm’s reports, and therefore is responsible for their security. Similarly, the theft of property protected by a security service employer is considered an economic loss or injury to that employer.
It appears some body shop employee took the car. It's a theft, and the employer had custody of the vehicle at the time. Where there is a problem is with the three techs, notwithstanding those will disagree here. quote: (f)(1) As used in section 7(d)(3), the term reasonable suspicion refers to an observable, articulable basis in fact which indicates that a particular employee was involved in, or responsible for, an economic loss.
Notice the word "particular." quote: (3) The employer has the burden of establishing that the specific individual or individuals to be tested are ‘‘reasonably suspected’’ of involvement in the specific economic loss or injury for the requirement in section 7(d)(3) to be met.
Notice "the specific individual" language here. That's what concerns me, and that was at issue in the court case I cited in the other post. [This message has been edited by Barry C (edited 06-29-2012).] IP: Logged |
Dan Mangan Member
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posted 06-29-2012 03:33 PM
Good grief, fidelity tests are so much easier...IP: Logged |
Barry C Member
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posted 06-29-2012 04:19 PM
Oh, the irony!IP: Logged |
Poly761 Member
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posted 06-29-2012 06:14 PM
Theft defined: In common usage, theft is the taking of another person's property without that person's permission or consent with the intent to deprive the rightful owner of it. It doesn't appear there is or was an "intent to deprive" as the car was returned (if ever taken). An 'ol "he said - he said." Car owner reports he observed someone driving his car; he can't ID the driver and no other witnesses to corroborate the owners observation. None of the techs with access to the car admit to what (only) appears to be unauthorized use of the car. At this point I don't agree there is a loss of any type. From what I've read there is no "reasonable suspicion" a particular/specific employee was involved. I don't believe this employer meets the requirements identified in EPPA Section 7 (EXEMPTIONS) and specifically subsection 7(d) that identifies Limited Exemptions For Ongoing Investigations. "Misappropriation" could work but there is no independent evidence identifying a specific person as the driver. Aren't fishing expeditions prohibited? Unless I misread EPPA, I would not consider examining any of the three techs with this limited information. Trying to thread to fine a line. Push too hard based on "55 cents per mile" or "probable abuse" and I suspect I may end up needing a lawyer to defend against a civil suit. END.....
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Dan Mangan Member
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posted 06-29-2012 06:45 PM
The leased car was indeed taken and driven for 150 miles.IP: Logged |
Poly761 Member
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posted 06-29-2012 07:57 PM
I agree it was taken but do not agree it was stolen as it was returned and appears there was no intent to deprive. I believe an exam based on "misappropriation" as listed in EPPA can be defended (if) the owner was able to ID the driver. Without the ID or other evidence identifying a suspect, I believe I would be placing myself and the business owner in jeopardy by agreeing to conduct this exam. END..... IP: Logged |
Dan Mangan Member
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posted 06-29-2012 08:49 PM
Shouldn't the dealership's corporate counsel -- after reviewing EPPA -- be the one to make the decision? Why is the non-attorney examiner on the hook?IP: Logged |
Ted Todd Member
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posted 06-29-2012 09:36 PM
Nuked-out of line! Sorry.Ted [This message has been edited by Ted Todd (edited 06-30-2012).] IP: Logged |
Poly761 Member
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posted 06-29-2012 09:45 PM
In this situation, as described, if corporate counsel approved administration of this exam, I would suggest they contact another examiner. I would refuse to conduct the exam for the following reason: In my opinion, the "non-attorney examiner" is "on the hook," as you state, as EPPA Section 2(2), Definitions, identifies an "Employer" as " - any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee or prospective employee." Prior to reviewing the definitions section of EPPA I believed an employer is, as many of us may believe, one person that hired another person, the possible examinee, to work for them. I simply considered myself the polygraph examiner involved in an investigation. After reading the definitions, it appears the examiner is defined as an "employer" as they are a person acting in the interest of an employer. I prefer to be conservative in my approach to all issues but am I reading too much into the definition of an employer as defined in the EPPA? END..... IP: Logged |
Ted Todd Member
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posted 06-29-2012 09:56 PM
Poly761"I agree it was taken but do not agree it was stolen as it was returned and appears there was no intent to deprive." Does that mean that no crime/loss has occurred? Ted IP: Logged |
Poly761 Member
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posted 06-29-2012 10:49 PM
Ted - As I understand Managan's question he's asking, if, based on the circumstances he cited, 3 techs can be tested that had access to a vehicle reportedly used without authorization.If the vehicle was used as described a public offense was committed. I'm getting ahead of myself but thinking not too many DA's will file on this specific issue with this limited information. No, there is no loss, the vehicle was returned (if it was ever taken). Based on the cited circumstances I read, there is no evidence other than a statement from the vehicle owner the car was being driven. I don't believe the issue is whether or not a crime was committed. The issue to be resolved is whether or not, based on the circumstances Managan cited, any one or all three employee's can be tested. Do you believe any or all three techs can be tested; why or why not? END..... IP: Logged |
Barry C Member
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posted 06-29-2012 10:51 PM
Again, read the CFR. "Employer" was interpreted years ago.As to theft, your citing the common law definition. Long ago, people realized the "intent to deprive" issue was a problem in certain circumstances. Thus, the creation of classes of thefts such as "Theft by unauthorized use," which required no intent to permanently deprive. But, let's think about it: the used gas, burned oil, depreciation, etc, all is gone. Sure, you can re-fill the tank, but that's like stealing $100 bucks, getting lucky in Vegas and paying it back later. Was there then no theft? IP: Logged |
Poly761 Member
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posted 06-29-2012 11:11 PM
Barry - I pulled the information from an old EPPA copy; CFR does clarify the "employer" issue.§ 801.2 Definitions. (c) The term employer means any person acting directly or indirectly in the interest of an employer in relation to an employee or prospective employee. § 801.2 A polygraph examiner either employed for or whose services are retained for the sole purpose of administering polygraph tests ordinarily would not be deemed an employer with respect to the examinees. Would you test any of the techs? END.....
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wjallen Member
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posted 07-08-2012 12:03 AM
DanThis is a great case to test under EPPA. The employer clearly has an incident of employee misconduct (does not have to be a criminal act) which results in an indirect loss or damage to the employer's business. Keep in mind all three techs know who used the car and this is not the first weekend cars have been borrowed. If you have a good feel for the likely offender and you quoted a day rate test him first, fess him up, and have an adult berverage. If you quoted per test save the best for last! IP: Logged |